Been listening to a lecture about Mary Magdalene. The professors said Jesus was portrayed as a single man because the Gospels never mentions he had a wife?
So, were all the disciples unmarried?
Was it just a gagle of unmarried people.
Not probable I'm told. OK, well were does it say that they were married?
If they were what were their wive's names?
What no names?
So why not? Oh, women were chattel and not important enough to be discussed and reported.
So, what's with Mary Magdalene then? Why is she named?
So why does this equation not sum?
6 comments:
Because the NT is not very interested in answering these particular issues of ours regarding gender equality and representation.
Your search is an anachronistic one. That it doesn't have evidence for arguments we want to make is hardly surprising.
That liberal protestant Christians keep wanting it to is evidence of how much the gut response of needing Holy Scripture to guide one in everything (sola scriptura) is just an unconscious likeness with conservative ideologues.
Feodor: "That it(the NT) doesn't have evidence for arguments we want to make is hardly surprising."
I've found that a good single minded proof-texter can find almost anything in the Bible. Just think of the religious policies over the centuries that are based on only part of a single verse. This can be observed any day of the week by watching an hour or two of televangelism. I recommend inebriation before watching however.
Sounds like Dan Brown/Bart Erhman
territory. Tis fun to rummage through the concurrent writings that never made it into the NT:
would that a few new ones would pop up...
[Sorry, I meant my step-father... late marriage.]
My step father used to belong to the one-cup Church of Christ.
Because the text reads, "he took the cup" not "cups," those parishes held themselves off from the "progressive" Churches of Christ.
Peter had a wife.
According to Brown, it was bad for a Jewish guy to not be married thus why he says jesus was.
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